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Human Vision and Magnification

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#1 Otto Piechowski

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Posted 20 December 2013 - 08:17 PM

Is unaided human vision 0X (a magnification of zero) or 1X (a magnification of 1)?

Otto

#2 PeterR280

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Posted 20 December 2013 - 08:34 PM

0 if you use a logarithmic scale, 1 if you use an arithmetic scale.

#3 Rick Woods

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Posted 20 December 2013 - 09:37 PM

It seems like they'd be the same thing.

#4 GlennLeDrew

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Posted 21 December 2013 - 02:24 AM

Unity. It's only less or more when using auxiliary optics.

#5 PeterR280

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Posted 21 December 2013 - 11:18 AM

I've read that the human eye roughly corresponds to a 50mm lens on a 35mm sized sensor.

#6 GlennLeDrew

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Posted 21 December 2013 - 11:52 AM

That would be like wearing blinders! A 50mm lens on a 36mm wide sensor has a field of view of just 40 degrees. Our eyes in the horizontal approach 180 degrees (with the bridge of the nose imposing a blockage.)

The oft stated 'equivalence' of the 50mm lens with the eye can only apply for a very limited set of defined conditions.

#7 PeterR280

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Posted 21 December 2013 - 12:04 PM

Peripheral vision is something else. Our ability to discern detail is very much more limited.






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