Just making sure I'm building on a firm foundation:

My SCT has an aperture of 8" or 203.2mm and more importantly, has a focal length of 2032mm

So, does that mean any scope with a focal length of 2032MM (without an eyepiece) should be starting out with zero magnification?

If so, it would follow that a scope with 1016mm focal length will also have zero magnification without an eyepiece?

A scope of 508mm focal length would like wise be zero?

If so, that makes sense that,

If I use an eyepiece of 20mm with the 2032mm this is about equal to 100 times.

Just as the same eyepiece on a 1016mm would equal about 50 times,

or on a 508mm we would now be viewing at 25 times?

I am also assuming a full framed camera with a 50mm lens will also be at or very near zero magnification.

(I do understand the math will be slightly different for the camera, but just wanting a basic understanding and a workable base line).

Sorry for the simplicity, but just trying to build a foundation of knowledge to further my understanding.

Tony

**Edited by FerrariMX5, 06 June 2020 - 05:50 PM.**